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Can women be prophetesses, but not Pastors?Gal 3:28 "...There is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus." Jam 2:1 "My brethren, have not the faith of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Lord of glory, with respect of persons... 8 If ye fulfil the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well: 9 But IF YE HAVE RESPECT TO PERSONS, YE COMMIT SIN, and are convinced of the law as transgressors." Because of this scripture (Jam 2:1), we need to be very careful not to be respecters of persons, right? From my perspective, saying a woman can be a prophetess, but not a pastor, is to be a respector of persons, and therefore sin. Referring to 1 Cor. 14:34, do you hold that the Old Testament says that ALL women are to be in subjection to ALL men? If you do, please show me what scriptures say this. I have found that ALL the scriptures in the N.T. that talk about the differences between men and women relate to their relationship in marriage, and DO NOT have ANY direct relation to women and ALL OTHER men in the church. For example, 1 Corinthians teaches- 1Co 14:34 "Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience AS ALSO SAITH THE LAW." I can find NOWHERE in the law that women are commanded to be in subjection to ALL men. THERE WOULD HAVE TO BE SUCH A SCRIPTURE FOR THIS PASSAGE TO MEAN WOMEN ARE TO BE UNDER OBEDIENCE TO ALL MEN for this passage to mean that. There is no such scripture. the Bible, both Old and New Testament, confine a woman's obedience ONLY to her husband, not all men. Gen 3:16 "Unto the woman he said... thy desire shall be TO THY HUSBAND, and he shall rule over thee." This O.T. scripture puts a woman under submission only to her own husband. The Old Testament in other places gives women authority over ALL the nation of Israel, men and women- Rth 1:1"...the judges ruled..." "Judges, the. There is a restricted sense of the word judge, in which it means that officer who PRESIDED OVER the affairs of the Hebrews in the period between Joshua and the accession of Saul." -Uner's Bible Dictionary. Jdg 4:4 "And Deborah, a prophetess, the wife of Lapidoth, she judged (RULED, PRESIDED OVER!) Israel at that time." Here we see Deborah, an O.T. prophetess in the highest ruling spiritual office of that dispensation- a judge of all Israel. Her position would be compared to an apostle in this dispensation. So we can't say that 1 Cor. 14:34 is referring to all women because of the O.T. law. It can only be referring to the subjection of a woman to her husband in the marriage relationship. And so says also the rest of the N.T.- Eph 5:22 "Wives, submit yourselves unto your own husbands, as unto the Lord... 24 Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be to their OWN husbands in every thing." Is the church subject to other gods or all christs, false or true? Obviously not. We must look at the type, and the substance to get the full understanding of BOTH of the situations. If we were to try and force an interpretation of Eph. 5:22 to show that women should remain in obedience to ALL men, then we would be forced to allow that the substance (Christ's church), should also be in obedience to ALL gods, or lords! I don't think we want to do that, do you? I have studied this subject from much concern due to being called by Christ, and filled with the Holy Ghost by Him, in a church pastored by a woman, and the fact that my soul will have to give an account for that fact, that I have come to these firm convictions- A) That to limit a woman in the body of Christ, as if she were "married" to the whole body of Christ, or for the fact that she is a woman, would be to commit the sin of "respector of persons." Eph 5:22 "Wives, submit yourselves UNTO YOUR OWN husbands, as unto the Lord. 24 Therefore as the church is subject unto Christ, so let the wives be TO THEIR OWN husbands in every thing. (Specifically to their "Own husbands" not all men in the church, is also found in- Col 3:18, Titus 2:5, 1 Peter 3:1 & 5) Gal 3:28 "There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, THERE IS NEITHER MALE NOR FEMALE: FOR YE ARE ALL ONE IN CHRIST JESUS." B) That to restrict a woman from the same opportunity to the same callings in God as a man would be to make God out to be a respector of persons. Act 10:34 "Then Peter opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I perceive that God is no respecter of persons: 35 But in every nation he that feareth him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted with him." C) To restrict a woman to spiritual positions available to man, because of the curse of the fall, is to deny, or somehow to diminish the fact that women also have been freed from the curse of the law. Gal 3:13 "Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree" D) The reason that women are still differentiated in the flesh, in the marriage, is simply due to the same fact that men still have to work for a living, according to the curse- Rom 8:23 "...Even we ourselves groan within ourselves, WAITING FOR the adoption, to wit, THE REDEMPTION OF OUR BODY." Our spirit has been redeemed, but our natural bodies have not yet been redeemed. Not until the rapture. Please continue with Part One - Women, Priests, And
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